PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) Sample Questions Set-287
Categories: U.K. PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board)
Question: A 45 year old mechanic presents with a reducible swelling in the groin, impulse on coughing is present. He has mild dragging pain in the abdomen, otherwise he’s normal. What is the best management strategy?
a. Truss
b. Elective herniorrhaphy
c. Urgent herniorrhaphy
d. Elective herniotomy
e. Reassure
Answer: (d)
Question: A 25 year old man present with a mass in the groin after heavy lifting. Examination: mass is found just above and medial to the pubic tubercle. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring, cough impulse is still present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Direct inguinal hernia
b. Indirect inguinal hernia
c. Femoral hernia
d. Strangulated hernia
e. Femoral aneurysm
Answer: (a)
Question: A 35 year old woman presents with swelling in the neck. The swelling has increased in size gradually over the last two years and the patient feels she has difficulty with breathing. Examination: mass measures 8 cm by 10 cm, soft and not warm to touch. It moves with deglutition. Which is the most appropriate management of this mass?
a. Partial thyroidectomy
b. Oral thyroxine
c. Oral propylthiouracil
d. Excision biopsy
Answer: (a)
Question: A 46 year old laborer reports swelling in the right groin. The non-painful swelling is observable in both the erect and the recumbent positions. Examination: non-tender irreducible 4 cm mass in the right groin below and on the medial side of the inguinal ligament. Which is the most likely dx in this patient?
a. Indirect inguinal hernia
b. Femoral hernia
c. Saphenous vein varicocele
d. Hydrocoele
Answer: (c)
Question: A camel rider sustained a kick to the lateral side of his right leg just below the knee caused by the camel stick. The site is slightly bruised and tender to touch. During physical examination, he is unable to either dorsiflex or evert the foot. There is loss of sensation over the front and outer half of the leg and dorsum of the foot. If these observations are the result of damage to a nerve bundle, which is the most likely nerve affected?
a. Lateral popliteal
b. Peroneal
c. Tibia
d. Sural
Answer: (b)
Question: A 46 year old woman presents with a sudden episode of abdominal pain which started about 2h ago. The pain is located in the epigastrium and radiates to her back. She has vomited twice since the onset of the attack. The pain is made worse by lying flat on her back and she is more comfortable sitting up and bending forwards. She was informed of the presence of gallstones in her gallbladder four weeks earlier when she reported pain in the right hypochondrium. The oral temperature=39C, BP=120/80mmHg and the radial pulse=118/min. There is no jaundice but there is marked tenderness in the epigastrium both on deep and superficial palpitations. Which is the most appropriate investigation for the cause of the patient’s pain?
a. Plain abdominal X-ray
b. Serum Amylase
c. Serum bilirubin
d. Barium Swallow
Answer: (b)
Question: A 75 year old Japanese woman reports repeated episodes of vomiting of undigested food mixed with blood. She has lost 5 kgs in weight over the last month. Clinical examination: shows a frail woman with mild conjunctival pallor. Examination: non-tender slightly mobile mass in the epigastric region. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Colon cancer
b. Gastric cancer
c. Gallbladder cancer
d. Oesophageal cancer
Answer: (b)
Question: A 45 year old man, known to be chronically addicted to alcohol, presents in the ED and reports two episodes of vomiting fresh bright red blood in the previous 6h. He estimated the volume of blood vomited at each bout to be more than 500mls. Clinical exam: the radial pulse=120/min, BP=90/60mmHg. There is no mass or tenderness in the epigastrium. The liver is palpable for 3 cm below the costal margin and not tender. The patient is not jaundiced. The physician resuscitates the patient with oxygen by face mask, rapid infusion of intravenous normal saline while he requests for haemoglobin level and whole blood for transfusion. Which is the next appropriate step in management?
a. Barium Swallow
b. Exploratory laparotomy
c. CT scan of the abdomen
d. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Answer: (d)
Question: A 42 year old woman reports to the surgeon that she is worried about a lump that she feels on the right breast. The surgeon observes a 2 cm by 3 cm mass in the right lower quadrant of the breast. There are no associated skin changes and the mass has limited mobility. There is no discharge from the nipple. There is no axillary lymph node enlargement. Examination of the left breast and axilla was completely normal. A mammogram report suggests the presence of micro calcifications. Which is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
a. Observation for one year and repeat the mammography
b. A needle-guided biopsy of the breast
c. Excision biopsy of the breast
d. Partial mastectomy
Answer: (b)
Question: A 45 year old man presents with a mass on the right side of the face. The mass was first observed three months ago but has recently become visibly larger. He feels pain over the mass and is unable to blow a whistle. Clinical examination shows that the mass is likely to be the parotid gland. An oral examination shows a foul smelling discharge from the duct of the gland and gentle probing shows that it is stenosed at the meatus. Which of the following features suggests that the mass might be malignant?
a. Presence of pain
b. Recent enlargement
c. Facial nerve palsy
d. Stenosed duct meatus
Answer: (c)
These questions cover various aspects of medical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and professional skills. Remember to refer to the PLAB exam syllabus and guidelines for a comprehensive understanding of the exam content and format.
The PLAB test is a prerequisite for international medical graduates who want to practise medicine in the UK. Passing both parts of the exam is also a requirement. To receive a licence to practise medicine in the UK after passing the exam, you might need to complete additional exams, such as the GMC registration process and securing a job offer or training placement.
In order to practise medicine in the United Kingdom, international medical graduates must pass the PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) exam. The General Medical Council (GMC), which oversees medical practitioners in the UK, is in charge of administering it.
The PLAB exam is divided into two parts:
PLAB Part 1: This written, multiple-choice exam gauges your knowledge and comprehension of clinical practise and medical principles. It has 180 single-best-answer questions and covers a variety of subjects, such as surgery, psychiatry, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, and more. The PLAB Part 1 exam is available in many different nations.
PLAB Part 2: This practical test evaluates your clinical abilities, communication abilities, and ethical standards. There are 18 situations in all, all of them take place in the UK and include interacting with fictitious patients. Your capacity to gather data, generate accurate diagnoses, and create treatment plans is evaluated by the examiners.
You must fulfil specific requirements, such as holding a primary medical certification recognised by the GMC and possessing the appropriate English language proficiency, in order to be qualified to take the PLAB exam. The GMC's website should be checked for the most recent and comprehensive qualifying requirements.
A strong foundation in clinical expertise and medical knowledge is necessary for PLAB exam preparation. Many applicants prepare by combining self-study, books, online sources, and practise tests. Additionally, a number of for-profit businesses provide training programmes and resources created expressly for the PLAB exam.