Question: A 30 year old caucasian man presented with a 2 weeks hx of gradually worsening vision in his left eye. The patient had been seen once by a neurologist 2 years prv for flashes. At that time a head CT was normal. The patient was lost to follow up with the neurologist, but the flashes had continued for the 2yr period. The patient did not experience visual changes with activity or movement. The patient reported continued decreasing vision. Goldmann visual fields were done and showed a central scotoma. A MRI was done at this time and showed inflammation of the left optic nerve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

a. Pseudotumor

b. Orbital teratoma

c. Optic neuritis

d. Sarcoidosis

e. Optic glioma

f. Lymphangioma

g. Rhabdomyosarcoma

h. Retinal vascular shunts

i. Retinoblastoma

j. Mucormycosis

 

Answer: (c)

 

Question: A pregnant woman in an early stage of labour expresses the wish to have pain relief during labour. The anesthetist describes that if the patient wishes he can use medication as a local anesthetic to block the pain sensations of labour. Into which space should the local anaesthetic be normally injected?

 

a. Anterior pararenal space

b. Aryepiglottic space

c. Vestibule space

d. Epidural space

e. Sub-arachnoid space

f. Space of Disse

g. Middle ear

h. Posterior pararenal space

i. Supraglottic space

j. Lesser sac

 

Answer: (d)

 

Question: A 29 year old Afro-Caribbean man presents with a non-productive cough mild aches in the ankles. The symptoms have been present for 2 months. His ESR is elevated. Ca: 2.69 mmol/l; PO43-: 1.20 mmol/l.

ALP: 80 iu/L. Serum 25(OH) D: 180 nmol/l.

Normal values for Calcium: 2.12-2.65mmol/l; Phosphate: 0.8-1.45mmol/l; ALP 30-300iu/L;

Serum 25(OH) D: 20-105nmol/l; Urea: 2.5-6.7mmol/l; Creatinine: 70-120µmol/l

 

a. Osteoporosis

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Skeletal metastases

d. Primary hyperparathyroidism

e. Hypoparathyroidism

f. Osteomalacia

g. Multiple myeloma

h. Paget's disease of bone

i. Sarcoidosis

j. Hyperthyroidism

 

Answer: (i)

 

Question: A 22 year old has had recent chickenpox. He now presents with confusion. He is noted to have low urine output and large petechiae all over his body. CXR: a large patch of consolidation is seen. The management of choice should be :

 

a. Ventilatory support

b. Open surgical debridement

c. Resection of superficial petechiae with wide margin

d. Booster vaccine

e. TENS

f. Lontophoresis

g. Nephrostomy

h. Oral Corticosteroids

i. Brivudin

j. IV acyclovir

 

Answer: (j)

 

Question: A young girl with a psychiatric hx on med tx is brought to the dermatologist by her mother because of recurrent patchy hair loss. Examination: the hair shafts revealed twisting and fractures. This suggests the following pathology:

 

a. Infection with Trichophyton tonsurans

b. Infection with Microsporum canis

c. Alopecia areata

d. Telogen Effluvium

e. Androgenetic Alopecia

f. Lichen planus

g. Traction Alopecia

h. Alopecia totalis

i. Trichorrhexis nodosa

j. Trichotillomania

 

Answer: (j)

 

Question: Syphilis typically causes

 

a. Lymphogranuloma Venereum

b. Testicular Torsion

c. Hydrocele

d. Epididymitis

e. Seminoma

f. Mature teratoma

g. Varicocele

h. Lymphoma

i. Orchitis

j. Spermatocele

 

Answer: (i)

 

Question: A middle aged woman has severe collapse of the right femoral head requiring replacement. The removed femoral head is sent for pathology and is found to contain enlarged fat cells. The pathologist explains that this is the likely cause of the patient's femoral head collapse. A likely aetiology is

 

a. Septic emboli

b. Impaired venous drainage

c. Hgb SS disease

d. Steroid use

e. Alcoholism

f. Gaucher's disease

g. missed fracture

h. Cushing's disease

i. Radiation

j. Vasculitis

 

Answer: (h)

 

Question: A 7 year old boy with frequent episodic asthma is on tx with sodium cromoglycate. His physician wants to add a non-steroid preventer. The mother of the boy, a teacher, has just read about a non-steroidal medication which acts on the mast cells, stopping them from releasing harmful chemicals. Her physician agrees to add this medication to the boy's drug regimen. Which medication is the physician most likely to add to the boy's treatment?

 

a. Inhaled short acting bronchodilator

b. SC adrenaline

c. Nedocromil Sodium

d. Inhaled long acting bronchodilator

e. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate

f. Inhaled steroids

g. Inhaled SABA

h. Oral steroids

i. Nebulised bronchodilators

j. Oral theophylline

 

Answer: (c)

 

Question: A 3 year old boy is playing with his brother when he falls. He cries immediately and refuses to walk. His mother carries him to hospital. He had a full term NVD with no neonatal complications. His immunisations are up to date. Exam: looks well and well-nourished, no dysmorphic features. He has slight swelling, warmth and discomfort on the lower 1/3 of the left tibia, and refuses to bear weight. AP and lateral x rays of the tibia are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

a. Ankle fx

b. Ankle sprain

c. Fibular fx

d. Knee dislocation

e. Tibial fx

 

Answer: (e)

 

Question: Which one of the following electrocardiographic changes is found in hypercalcaemia?

 

a. Increased QRS interval

b. Prolonged Q-T interval

c. Short P-R interval

d. Short Q-T interval

 

Answer: (d)


These questions cover various aspects of medical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and professional skills. Remember to refer to the PLAB exam syllabus and guidelines for a comprehensive understanding of the exam content and format.

The PLAB test is a prerequisite for international medical graduates who want to practise medicine in the UK. Passing both parts of the exam is also a requirement. To receive a licence to practise medicine in the UK after passing the exam, you might need to complete additional exams, such as the GMC registration process and securing a job offer or training placement.

In order to practise medicine in the United Kingdom, international medical graduates must pass the PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) exam. The General Medical Council (GMC), which oversees medical practitioners in the UK, is in charge of administering it.

The PLAB exam is divided into two parts:

PLAB Part 1: This written, multiple-choice exam gauges your knowledge and comprehension of clinical practise and medical principles. It has 180 single-best-answer questions and covers a variety of subjects, such as surgery, psychiatry, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, and more. The PLAB Part 1 exam is available in many different nations.

PLAB Part 2: This practical test evaluates your clinical abilities, communication abilities, and ethical standards. There are 18 situations in all, all of them take place in the UK and include interacting with fictitious patients. Your capacity to gather data, generate accurate diagnoses, and create treatment plans is evaluated by the examiners.

You must fulfil specific requirements, such as holding a primary medical certification recognised by the GMC and possessing the appropriate English language proficiency, in order to be qualified to take the PLAB exam. The GMC's website should be checked for the most recent and comprehensive qualifying requirements.

A strong foundation in clinical expertise and medical knowledge is necessary for PLAB exam preparation. Many applicants prepare by combining self-study, books, online sources, and practise tests. Additionally, a number of for-profit businesses provide training programmes and resources created expressly for the PLAB exam.