PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) Sample Questions Set-87
Categories: U.K. PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board)
Question. A 40 year old woman requests post coital contraception. Her condom broke 36 hours ago. On the 7th day of the regular 29th day of cycle this is her 2nd condom accident in 2 months. She has tried OC pills but stopped it 6 months ago because of concerns about weight gain. She is undecided about future contraceptive use. Her pregnancy test is -ve. Which is the most effective form of contraception for her?
A. OC pills
B. POP pills
C. IUS or Mirena coil
D. IUCD
Answer: (d)
Question. A middle aged plumber, who is a known case of COPD and has a history of smoking, presents with breathlessness and chest pain on inspiration. CXR shows:
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Heart failure
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Mesothelioma.
Answer: (d)
Question. A 24 year old man presented to the A and E with swelling in his left scrotum. On examination he is afebrile and he has a left swollen non tender testis that is firm and irregular. Some lymphadenopathy is also appreciated. Which group of lymph nodes will be involved?
A. External iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Inguinal
D. Para aortic
E. Pre aortic
Answer: (d)
Question. Patient had all signs of cerebello-pontine angle (CPA) tumour, facial numbness, tinnitus and vertigo. What is the best investigation?
A. CT scan
B. MRI Brain
C. MRI Head
D. X-ray head
Answer: (b)
Question. A 17 year old man has acute pain and earache on the right side of his face. He has a temperature of 38.4˚C and has extensive pre- auricular swelling on the right, tender on palpation bilaterally. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute mastoiditis
B. Acute otitis externa
C. Acute otitis media
D. Mumps
Answer: (d)
Question. A 67 year old man presents to the A&E with pain in his left groin. He suddenly collapses and he is not able to move or lift his leg. He is on Alendronate. What is the diagnosis?
A. Fracture of neck of femur
B. Posterior hip dislocation
C. Fracture of shaft of femur
D. Pelvic base fracture
E. Peripheral vascular disease
Answer: (a)
Question. A 40 year old woman presents to the GP with a low mood. Of note, she has an increased appetite and has gone up to two dress sizes. She also complains that she cannot get out of bed until the afternoon. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Pseudo Depression
B. Moderate Depression
C. Severe Depression
D. Dysthymia
E. Atypical Depression
Answer: (e)
Question. A patient has back pain at the level of iliac crest. What is the level of vertebrae?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5
Answer: (d)
Question. A 45 year old lady presented with weakness in the left half of the body that resolved after two hours. Ct scan showed an area of reduced blood flow. What is the next best investigation?
A. Echo
B. Carotid Doppler plus angiography
C. Glucose
D. Lipids
E. ECG
Answer: (b)
Question. Patient with history of recurrent breast abscess for 2 years. Now presents with a swelling and purulent discharge from the breast with induration, located between the nipple and areola. What do you think the patient is suffering from?
A. Breast abscess
B. Mammary duct Fistula
C. Duct ectasia
D. Duct papilloma
Answer: (b)
These questions cover various aspects of medical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and professional skills. Remember to refer to the PLAB exam syllabus and guidelines for a comprehensive understanding of the exam content and format.
The PLAB test is a prerequisite for international medical graduates who want to practise medicine in the UK. Passing both parts of the exam is also a requirement. To receive a licence to practise medicine in the UK after passing the exam, you might need to complete additional exams, such as the GMC registration process and securing a job offer or training placement.