PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) Sample Questions Set-239
Categories: U.K. PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board)
Question: A 21 year old female in her first pregnancy at 38wks was brought to the ED with generalized tonic clonic seizure. IV MgSO4 was given but it was not controlled. She is having fits again. What is the single most immediate management of this patient?
a. IV MgSO4
b. IV diazepam
c. Immediate C-section
d. IV phenytoin
e. MgSO4 bolus
f. IV lorazepam
Answer: (a)
Question: A 24 year old lady with BMI=30 complains of facial hair growth and hx of amenorrhea. FSH=10.9, prolactin=400IU, estradiol=177.8mmol/l, progesterone=normal, LH=33.2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. PCOS
b. Pregnancy
c. Cushing’s disease
d. CAH
e. POF
Answer: (a)
Question: A 17 year old girl with a lump in her breast was seen in the clinic. Exam: the lump was free and mobile and not attached to the skin. Her mother wants further tests done. What should be the next step?
a. CT
b. Ultrasound breast
c. Punch biopsy
d. Reassure and send home
e. Stereotactic biopsy
Answer: (b)
Question: A lady comes with a missing IUCD thread. Her LMP was 2 weeks ago. What is the single most appropriate next step in management?
a. Abdominal Ultrasound
b. Prescribe contraceptives
c. CT
d. Serum BHCG
e. Vaginal exam
Answer: (a)
Question: A 32 year old woman presents with hx of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. She had her menses 4 weeks ago. She has a temp of 38.6C. What is the most suitable diagnosis?
a. Acute appendicitis
b. Acute PID
c. Endometriosis
d. Ectopic pregnancy
e. UTI
Answer: (b)
Question: A 40 year old female was on COCP which she stopped 6m ago. But she has not had her periods since then. Labs: FSH=22, LH=24, prolactin=700, estradiol=80. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
a. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
b. Post pill amenorrhea
c. Prolactinoma
d. Pregnancy
e. Premature ovarian failure
Answer: (e)
Question: A 25 year old woman presents with a single lump in the breast and axilla. The lump is mobile and hard in consistency. The US, mammograms and FNA turn out to be normal. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
a. FNAC
b. MRI
c. Punch biopsy
d. Genetic testing and counselling
e. Core biopsy
Answer: (e)
Question: A 37 year old lady stopped taking COCP 18m ago and she had amenorrhea for 12m duration. Labs: FSH=8, LH=7, prolactin=400, estradiol=500. What is the cause?
a. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
b. PCOS
c. Prolactinoma
d. Post pill amenorrhea
e. POF
Answer: (d)
Question: A lady with a firm smooth breast lump in the outer quadrant had a FNAC done. Results showed borderline benign changes. She also has a fam hx of breast cancer. What is your next?
a. Mammography
b. US
c. Core biopsy
d. Genetic testing and counselling
e. Punch biopsy
Answer: (d)
Question: A patient presents with mild dyskaryosis. 1y ago, smearing was normal. What is the most appropriate next step?
a. Cauterization
b. Repeat smear
c. Swab and culture
d. Cone biopsy
e. Colposcopy
Answer: (e)