PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) Sample Questions Set-89
Categories: U.K. PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board)
Question. A patient has had amenorrhea for the last 6 months. Previously she was taking COCP pills. Her LH:FSH ratio is 1:1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Post pill amenorrhea
B. PCOS
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
D. Premature ovarian failure
Answer: (a)
Question. Patient having pansystolic murmur at apex radiating to the axilla on the next day after MI with low BP. What is the most likely cause?
A. Ventricular aneurysm
B. Papillary muscle rupture
C. VSD
D. Pericarditis
E. Aortic stenosis
Answer: (b)
Question. A three- month old baby was miserable and cried for two hours following his first routine immunization with diphtheria, tetanus, polio, Haemophilus influenza- B (HiB) and meningitis. What is the single most appropriate action?
A. Defer immunization for two weeks
B. Do not give vaccine
C. Give half dose of vaccine
D. Give Paracetamol with future doses of the same vaccine
E. Proceed with standard immunization schedule
Answer: (d)
Question. A 46 year old woman is brought to A&E after falling in the bathroom while painting. She is drowsy and gives a history of sudden severe headache at the back of the head prior to the fall. What investigation would be the best choice in this case?
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. MRI head
C. CT Head
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Skull X-ray
Answer: (c)
Question. A 63 years old female is noted to have left pupil unresponsive to light and is dilated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Pontine hemorrhage
B. Subdural hemorrhage
C. Cerebellar hemorrhage
D. Extradural hemorrhage
E. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: (d)
Question. A 7 year old boy has a clean wound on his foot. He has no past history of immunisation. His parents are scared that he might get some disease. His wound has been cleaned and dressed. What is the next step in management?
A. Reassure
B. Tetanus toxoid and immunoglobulin
C. Full course of DPT
D. Tetanus Immunoglobulin only
Answer: (c)
Question. A 62 year old female who had an episode of postmenopausal bleeding PV was sent for a TV USG. Endometrial thickness was found to be 7mm. What is the next best step in management?
A. Total hysterectomy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Hysteroscopy and Endometrial biopsy
D. Pipelle’s endometrial sampling
E. MRI of pelvis
Answer: (c)
Question. A 65 year old man with recently diagnosed myocardial infarction developed atrial fibrillation. On examination he had a pulse of 240 bpm and BP 90/60mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. DC Cardioversion
B. IV Adenosine
C. IV Amiodarone
D. IV Digoxin
Answer: (a)
Question. A 29 year old female presents with intermittent episodes of unilateral headache. Headache is always on the right side. She also complains of associated watering of the eye and nasal congestion on the same side. All these symptoms were worse particularly in the mornings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sinusitis
B. Tension headache
C. Space occupying lesion
D. Cluster headache
E. Acute angle closure glaucoma
Answer: (d)
Question. A man presents with scrotal swelling, the swelling is cystic and is non tender, and it is located at the upper pole of the posterior part of the testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epididymal Cyst
B. Testicular cancer
C. Hydrocele
D. Teratoma
E. Testicular torsion
Answer: (a)
These questions cover various aspects of medical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and professional skills. Remember to refer to the PLAB exam syllabus and guidelines for a comprehensive understanding of the exam content and format.
The PLAB test is a prerequisite for international medical graduates who want to practise medicine in the UK. Passing both parts of the exam is also a requirement. To receive a licence to practise medicine in the UK after passing the exam, you might need to complete additional exams, such as the GMC registration process and securing a job offer or training placement.