Question. A 40 year old gentleman with a fistula which discharging on the anal midline posterior to anus. What is the single most appropriate treatment?
A. Lay open fistula
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Local aenesthetics
D. Observe
E. GTN cream
Answer. (a)
Question. A random study on Pulmonary Embolism shows:
i. 100 patients out of 1000 died who did not get the treatment.
ii. 5 patients out of 100 died who got proper treatment.
Choose the single most likely absolute risk for each of the above mentioned studies.
A. Absolute risk 5%
B. Absolute risk 10%
C. Absolute risk 2%
D. Absolute risk 15%
E. Absolute risk 20%
Answer. (a)
Question. A lady has complaints of lower abdominal pain, low grade fever and vaginal discharge suggestive of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). She is not toxic. What is the appropriate empirical treatment for Pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Metronidazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Ciprofloxacin
Answer. (c)
Question. A 22 year old boy has had frequent fainting attacks since childhood. ECG shows normal PR interval and QRS, however QT is prolonged. What is the cause of the faint?
A. Torsade de pointes
B. Complete heart block
C. Atrial Fibrillation
D. Sick sinus syndrome
E. Ventricular fibrillation
Answer. (a)
Question. A 60 year old lady who had anterior resection of his bowel 5 days ago presents with swelling on her wound. There is 4 cm swelling around the colostomy which is tender and fluctuating. She is not systemically unwell. What is the single most appropriate action?
A. Laparotomy
B. Local anaesthesia
C. Laparotomy with wound repair.12
D. Exploration of the wound
E. Abdominal X-ray.
Answer. (d)
Question. A 30 year old patient presents with heavy bleeding. She is in a stable relationship and is not keen on conception. USG shows a normal uterus. What would you advise her?
A. Mirena coil
B. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)
C. IUCD
D. Progesterone only pill
E. Tranexamic acid
Answer. (a)
Question. A 35 year old woman has had bruising and petechiae for one week. She has also had recent menorrhagia but is otherwise well. A blood count shows:
Haemoglobin(Hb): 11.1g/dl
White blood cell (WBC): 6.3 X109L (normal differential) Platelets: 14 X 109 L
What is SINGLE most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute leukaemia
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Human immunodeficiency (HIV) infection
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Answer. (d)
Question. A 55 year old man returns for routine follow-up six weeks after a myocardial infarction. He gets breathless when walking uphill. His ECG shows ST elevation in chest leads V1, V2, V3 and V4. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal investigation?
A. Heart Block
B. Right Ventricular Strain
C. Atrial Thrombus
D. Left Ventricular Aneurysm
E. Dressler Syndrome
Answer. (d)
Question. A patient on digoxin presenting with a 3 days history of nausea and vomiting. He also complains of severe tiredness and muscle pain. Since yesterday he also complained of some visual disturbances. What is the next step of management?
A. Check digoxin level
B. Symptomatic management
C. Check visual acuity
D. Give Digibind
E. Give IV Fluids
Answer. (a)
Question. An asymptomatic 35 year old lady with a family history of ovarian carcinoma is concerned about her risk. Her 2 sisters had Ovarian Cancer between the ages of 40 and 45. What is the next step in the plan of management?
A. Pelvic ultrasound
B. CA 125
C. Genetic testing and counselling
D. Return if symptomatic
E. Reassurance
Answer. (c)
These questions cover various aspects of medical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and professional skills. Remember to refer to the PLAB exam syllabus and guidelines for a comprehensive understanding of the exam content and format.
The PLAB test is a prerequisite for international medical graduates who want to practise medicine in the UK. Passing both parts of the exam is also a requirement. To receive a licence to practise medicine in the UK after passing the exam, you might need to complete additional exams, such as the GMC registration process and securing a job offer or training placement.
In order to practise medicine in the United Kingdom, international medical graduates must pass the PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board) exam. The General Medical Council (GMC), which oversees medical practitioners in the UK, is in charge of administering it.
The PLAB exam is divided into two parts:
PLAB Part 1: This written, multiple-choice exam gauges your knowledge and comprehension of clinical practise and medical principles. It has 180 single-best-answer questions and covers a variety of subjects, such as surgery, psychiatry, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, and more. The PLAB Part 1 exam is available in many different nations.
PLAB Part 2: This practical test evaluates your clinical abilities, communication abilities, and ethical standards. There are 18 situations in all, all of them take place in the UK and include interacting with fictitious patients. Your capacity to gather data, generate accurate diagnoses, and create treatment plans is evaluated by the examiners.
You must fulfil specific requirements, such as holding a primary medical certification recognised by the GMC and possessing the appropriate English language proficiency, in order to be qualified to take the PLAB exam. The GMC's website should be checked for the most recent and comprehensive qualifying requirements.
A strong foundation in clinical expertise and medical knowledge is necessary for PLAB exam preparation. Many applicants prepare by combining self-study, books, online sources, and practise tests. Additionally, a number of for-profit businesses provide training programmes and resources created expressly for the PLAB exam.